A circular argument

Consider the following argument:

I, Professor Brown, always tell the truth. That must be true because It is a USNA rule that faculty members must always tell the truth and I follow all USNA rules. You know I follow all the rules because I stated that I follow all USNA rules, and if I state something you know it is true because I, Professor Brown, always tell the truth.

Hopefully you recognize that there's something wrong with this argument. This is what's called a circular argument - an argument that assumes the truth of the very thing it is supposed to prove. Circular arguments are not logically valid, because following them leads you in an infinite loop ... it's turtles all the way down.

A question

One of our main results about propositional logic was that every boolean function has a defining propositional formula ... in fact, has a defining propositional formula that only uses ands, ors and nots. It's interesting to ask whether there are other small sets of propositional operators that suffice to define every boolean function. For example: Can all boolean functions be defined by formulas that use only ands, ors and implications? Do we think this is true?

Consider the following statement:
Proposition: If $F$ is a propositional formula that only contains ands, ors, implications ($\wedge,\vee,\Rightarrow$) and the variables $x_1,\ldots,x_n$, and $I$ is the interpretation in which each $x_i = \text{true}$, then $F$ is true under interpretation $I$.
If this proposition is true, it's interesting because it would imply that there are boolean functions that can't be defined by formulas that use only ands, ors and implications (in contrast to ands/ors/nots), specifically, any boolean function that has "false" in the output column of the row with all inputs "true". So let's consider whether we can prove this proposition.

A new kind of proof

Do you think above proposition is true? Explain why you think it's true? What would it take to *prove* this to you? I.e. convince you to the point at which you'd bet your life that it's true? How about this for a proof:
Proof attempt I: By our givens, $F$ is one of $(A)\wedge(B)$, $(A)\vee(B)$ or $(A)\Rightarrow(B)$. Also by our givens, $A$ and $B$ can only contain ands, ors, implications and variables, so therefore they are both true under interpretation $I$. So under interpretation $I$ formula $F$ evaluates as one of true∧true, true∨true or true⇒true, all of which are true. QED.
Is this convincing? Isn't this circular? We are trying to prove that a formula with only $\wedge/\vee/\Rightarrow$ eval's to true when all the variables are all true, and in that proof we just assume that $A$ and $B$ both evaluate to true when the variables are all true because they only contain $\wedge/\vee\Rightarrow$. There we are assuming the truth of the very thing we are supposed to be proving!
So how can we fix this argument (which is somehow compelling despite its flaws) so that it's no longer circular?
Proof attempt II: Let $F$ be an $n$-operator formula. By our givens $F$ is one of $(A)\wedge(B)$, $(A)\vee(B)$ or $(A)\Rightarrow(B)$. Also by our givens, $A$ and $B$ can only contain ands, ors, implications and variables, and both $A$ and $B$ contain fewer than $n$ operators, so therefore they are both true under interpretation $I$. So under interpretation $I$ formula $F$ evaluates as one of true∧true, true∨true or true⇒true, all of which are true. QED.
This breaks the circularity, because we are assuming the result holds for A and B with fewer operators! In other words, we are saying $n$-operator formulas evaluate to true under $I$ because formulas with fewer than $n$ operators evaluate to true under $I$. If we tease this apart level-by-level, we eventually come to the case of zero operators, which we haven't addressed! However, it's easy. When $n = 0$, $F$ is a variable, and all variables evaluate to true under interpretation $I$. So now instead of a circular argument, we have an argument that spirals ... spirals downward until it eventually reaches zero.

So when we put all these elements together, do we feel like we have a convincing argument that works for any formula $F$ whose only operators are ands, ors and nots no matter how many operators are in the formula? I think that we should accept this as convincing proof because what it's really doing is showing us how, for a formula $F$ of size $n$, we could build up a proof for $F$ from proofs for formulas of smaller size. And since we have a concrete proof for $n=0$, the smallest size, there's a foundation for all these proofs to build on. Note: Our third and final proof attempt is our actual (complete and correct!) proof, which you see under the theorem statement below. It puts together all the pieces we discussed so far.

$n=2$: $x_1 \wedge x_2 \Rightarrow x_3$ $n = 1$: $x_1 \wedge x_2$ $n= 0$: $x_i$
$F$ is $(A) \Rightarrow (B)$, both $A$ and $B$ are true under interpretation $I$ (see $n=1$ and $n=0$), so $F$ is $\text{true} \Rightarrow \text{true}$ which evaluates to true. $F$ is $(A) \wedge (B)$, both $A$ and $B$ are true under interpretation $I$ (see $n=0$), so $F$ is $\text{true} \wedge \text{true}$ which evaluates to true. $F$ is a variable, and $I$ maps all variables to true.

Proof by (strong) induction

We will now make a concious decision to accept the kind of argument we developed in the previous section. Here are the essential features of that kind of argument. We call such proofs inductive proofs or proof by induction. It is important to understand that we have a to make the philosophical decision to accept this new kind of deduction rule that says that if we know (1) the base case holds, and we know (2) the inductive case holds, then we deduce (3) that the property holds for objets of all sizes.
If $F$ is a propositional formula that only contains ands, ors, implications ($\wedge,\vee,\Rightarrow$) and the variables $x_1,\ldots,x_n$, and $I$ is the interpretation in which each $x_i = \text{true}$, then $F$ is true under interpretation $I$.
We will prove this by induction on $n$, the number of operators in $F$.
  1. if $n=0$, then $F$ is a variable $x_i$, which is true under interpretation $I$.
  2. if $n>0$, then $F$ is one of $(A)\wedge(B)$, $(A)\vee(B)$ or $(A)\Rightarrow(B)$.* 
    Note: we would normally never write this in our proofs, but just to show you the connection to the description of induction from above, this is what we just proved in Point 2:
    $\forall n > 0 \left[ \left( \begin{array}{c} \text{all formulas containing} \\ \text{only $\wedge,\vee\Rightarrow$ with less}\\ \text{than $n$ operators}\\ \text{evaluate to true under $I$} \end{array} \right) \Rightarrow \left( \begin{array}{c} \text{all $n$-operator formulas}\\ \text{containing only $\wedge,\vee\Rightarrow$}\\ \text{evaluate to true under $I$} \end{array} \right) \right] $
    Assume the inductive hypothesis, i.e. that all formulas containing only $\wedge,\vee\Rightarrow$ with less than $n$ operators evaluate to true under $I$. Then $A$ and $B$, which both have fewer than $n$ operators and only include $\wedge,\vee,\Rightarrow$, both evaluate to true under $I$. So, under $I$, formula $F$ evaluates to one of true∧true, true∨true or true⇒true, all of which are true.
  3. By induction, deduce that for any number of operators, a formula containing only $\wedge,\vee,\Rightarrow$ evaluates to true under interpretation $I$.

* To clarify what we mean by "$F$ is one of $(A)\wedge(B)$, $(A)\vee(B)$ or $(A)\Rightarrow(B)$": when $n > 0$, the formula $F$ has one or more operators, so its expression tree has top node labeled with one of $\wedge$/$\vee$/$\Rightarrow$. The left subtree under that top node is the formula we call "A", and the right subtree under that top node is the formula we call "B".


Christopher W Brown